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Top 20 Speed Distance and Time - Mathematics MCQ - Doon Defence Dreamers

Top 20 Speed Distance and Time – Mathematics MCQ

If you are preparing for Defence Exam, then here you can practice Top 20 Speed Distance and Time MCQ which can help in your preparation.   Question 1. A train of length 150 m takes 10s to cross another train 100 m long coming from the opposite direction. If the speed of first train is 30 kmph, what is the speed of second train? a. 72 kmph        b. 60 kmph       c. 54 kmph        d. 48 kmph   Question 2. Two persons P and Q start at the same time from city A for city B, 60 km away. P travels 4 km/hr slower than Q. Q reaches city B and at once turns back meeting P, 12 km from city B. What is the speed of P? a. 8 km/hr         b. 12 km/hr       c. 16 km/hr        d. 20 km/hr   Question 3. A boy walks from his house to school at 2.5 km/hr and arrives 12 minutes late. The next day he walks at 4 km/hr and reaches the school 15 minutes earlier. What is the distance from his house to school? a. 2 km             b. 2.5 km          c. 3 km             d. 3.5 km   Question 4. A person travelled by train for 1 hour at a speed of 50 kmph. He then travelled by a taxi for 30 minutes at a speed of 32 kmph to complete his journey. What is the average speed at which he travelled during the journey? a. 44 kmph                    b. 42 kmph                   c. 41 kmph                    d. 33 kmph   Question 5. The earth takes 24 hours to rotate about its own axis. Through what angle will it turn in 4 hours and 12 minutes? a. 63 degree                  b. 64 degree                 c. 65 degree                  d. 70 degree Top 20 Speed Distance and Time – Mathematics MCQ Question 6. A train 280 m long is moving at a speed of 60 kmph. What is the time taken by the train to cross a platform 220 m long? a. 45 s              b. 40 s              c. 35 s              d. 30 s   Question 7. A student moves √2 x km east from his residence and then moves x km north. He then goes x km north-east and finally he takes a turn of 90 degrees towards right and moves a distance x km and reaches his school. What is the shortest distance of the school from his residence? a. (2√2+1)x km  b. 3 x km          c. 2√2 x km                   d. 3√2 x km   Question 8. A car travels along the four sides of a square at speeds v, 2v, 3v and 4v respectively. If u is the average speed of the car in its travel around the square, then which one of the following is correct? a. u = 2.25v                   b. u = 3v           c. v ˂ u ˂ 2v                 d. 3v ˂ u ˂ 4v   Question 9. A bus travelling at a speed of 40 kmph reaches its destination in 8 minutes and 15 seconds. How far is the destination? a. 5.43 km         b. 5.44 km        c. 5.50 km         d. 9.06 km   Question 10. A person travels 12 km due North, then 15 km due East, after that 15 km due West and then 18 km due South. How far is he from the starting point? a. 6 km             b. 12 km           c. 33 km           d. 60 km Top 20 Speed Distance and Time – Mathematics MCQ Question 11. Two trains leave New Delhi at the same time. One travels north at 60 kmph and the other travels south at 40 kmph. After how many hours will the train be 150 km apart? a. 3/2                b. 4/3                c. ¾                  d. 15/2   Question 12. Running at a speed of 60 kmph, a train passed through a 1.5 km long tunnel in two minutes. What is the length of the train? a. 250 m           b. 500 m           c. 1000 m          d. 1500 m   Question 13. Three men start together to travel the same way around a circular track of 11 km. Their speeds are 4, 5.5 and 8 kmph respectively. When will they meet at the starting point for the first time? a. after 11 hours            b. after 21 hours            c. after 22 hours            d. after 33 hours   Question 14. A train, which is 150 m long passes a platform of 200 m in 15 seconds. What is the speed of the train? a. 36 kmph        b. 64 kmph       c. 84 kmph        d. 91 kmph   Question 15. Ms X drove at the speed of 45 kmph from home to a resort. Returning over the same route she got struck in traffic and took an hour longer, also she could drive only at the speed of 40 kmph. How many kilometres did she drive each way? a. 250               b. 300               c. 310               d. 360 Top 20 Speed Distance and Time – Mathematics MCQ Question 16. A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is: a. 0.5                b. 0.5П             c. 0.75П            d. 1.0   Question 17. ’R’ walks 1 km to east and then turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point? a. 3 km             b. 4 km c. 5 km             d. 7 km   Question 18. A starts from a place at 7 a.m. with a speed of 10 km per hour. B starts from the same place at 9 a.m. with a speed of 15 km per hour. When will B meet A? a. 2 p.m.           b. 1 p.m.           c. 3 p.m.           d. 12 noon   Question 19. If a bus travels 160 km in 4 hours and a train travels 320 km in 5 hours at uniform speeds then what is the ratio

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NDA Exam English most important Fill in the blank Question

NDA Exam English most important Fill in the blank Question Question: 1 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. A fine collection of ___. B. ___ does not need to be innovative to be good. C. He said that architecture is the ___ of wasting space beautifully. D. It is quite an ___. (A) art (B) choice (C) hobby (D) painting Ans: A art Question: 2 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. Computers are ____ to modern infrastructure. B. This is a ___ law of universe. C. The ___ revolution in human values that has occurred in the recent times. D. The new Harry Potter book has underwent ___ changes. (A) major (B) fundamental (C) important (D) tremendous Ans: B fundamental Question: 3 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. The Bill ___ reduction in electoral expenses. B. The plan ___ ten per cent growth in production. C. The budget for the current year ___ more or less double turn-over than that of last year. D. The company ___ a good production due to better prospects of sugarcane production. (A) seeks (B) rated (C) increased (D) envisages Ans: B rated Question: 4 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. They awaited ___ of the outcome. B. We watch the 9 o’ clock __ every night. C. It was ___to me. D. The ___of my accident was greatly exaggerated. (A) news (B) fundamental (C) told (D) sought Ans: A news Question: 5 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. Can you __ me with a rental car. B. This hotel can ___250 guests. C. The scientists had to ___the new result with the existing theories. D. We are ready to ___ more students only for one more week. (A) lend (B) accept (C) entertain (D) accommodate Ans: D accommodate Question: 6 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. It differs in that ___. B. She lost all ___for him. C. He went to the law school out of ___ for his father’s wishes. D. I ___ his judgement. (A) account (B) concern (C) respect (D) reward Ans: C respect Question: 7 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. The chief Minister is the leader of the party that commands a ___ in the House. B. Every major problem in the organization should be decided on the ___ opinion of all the senior management staff. C. As neither party has won the ___ a coalition government is the only alternative. D. A ___ of the employees are in favour of this move. (A) respect (B) majority (C) censensus (D) support Ans: B majority Question: 8 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. The book still has its ___ binding. B. The government restored the building to its ___ conditions. C. The play is ____; not an adaptation. D. The translation misses much of the subtlety of the ___ French. (A) actual (B) normal (C) anglo (D) original Ans: D original Question: 9 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). The constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1989 has A. ___ the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assembly elections. B. In the present cola-war, the consumer has gained on account of the ___ rates of aerated water. C. On account of our power –cut during the summer months this year, our average daily production of paper has ___ by almost ten percent. D. The mill has ____ the overhead expenses. (A) forced (B) reduced (C) induced (D) compelled Ans: B reduced Question: 10 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. ___ me the box from the other room. B. ___ water to the boiling point. C. Can I ___ my cousin to the dinner? D. This will ___ an end to the whole episode. (A) pick (B) achieve (C) give (D) bring Ans: D bring Question: 11 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. ___ the elevator door. B. The story will ___ you. C. ____ the ball before it lands on the ground. D. She was about to ____ the child’s hand and run of the room. (A) hold (B) load (C) bind (D) take Ans: A hold Question: 12 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed by four choices of words marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). A. To ___ proclamation of emergency by the president, the phrase ‘armed rebellion’, in the Article 39 of the Constitution, has been replaced by ‘internal disturbances’. B. This secondary roller is to ___ movement of wet paper on the dryer rollers. C. It will ___ quick settlement of the problem if our Chairman also participates in the first meeting. D. This could ___ production activities to our satisfaction. (A) good (B) enhance (C) increase (D) facilitate Ans: D facilitate Question: 13 In each of the following sentences there is a blank space, followed

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English language important fill in tha blank Question and Answers-2022

English language important fill in tha blank Question and Answers-2022 With a big season …1… for Team India, the news selection panel …2… by Sandeep Patil …3… safe as …4… picked the side for the first two Tests …5… the revenge series against England …6… Yuvraj Singh’s amazing …7… story continued, Harbhajan Singh too …8… a place in the Test side after a year hiatus …9… opener Murali Vijay was rewarded for a consistent domestic showing, replacing S Badrinath in the team …10… from the New Zealand series. Question: 1 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) ahead (B) close (C) behind (D) beside Ans: A ahead Question: 2 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) take (B) rule (C) follow (D) led Ans: D led Question: 3 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) playing (B) brush (C) squeeze (D) push Ans: A playing Question: 4 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) those (B) them (C) that (D) they Ans: D they Question: 5 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) for (B) far (C) from (D) form Ans: A for Question: 6 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) distance (B) while (C) pending (D) breach View Answer Ans: B while Question: 7 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) comeback (B) compliment (C) manners (D) opinion View Answer Ans: A comeback Question: 8 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) found (B) bottom (C) advance (D) introduce View Answer Ans: A found Question: 9 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) same (B) time (C) meanwhile (D) continuation View Answer Ans: C meanwhile Question: 10 Fill in each of the numbered blanks in the following passage with the most suitable words from the choices provided under the passage. (A) concern (B) from (C) primary (D) oitside View Answer Ans: B from

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BASIC G.K QUESTIONS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS

BASIC G.K QUESTIONS FOR COMPETITIVE EXAMS 2022 1.   Grand Central Terminal, Park Avenue, New York is the world’s A. largest railway station B. highest railway station C. longest railway station D. None of the above Answer: Option A 2.Entomology is the science that studies A. Behavior of human beings B. Insects C. The origin and history of technical and scientific terms D. The formation of rocks Answer: Option B 3.Eritrea, which became the 182nd member of the UN in 1993, is in the continent of A. Asia B. Africa C. Europe D. Australia Answer: Option B 4.Garampani sanctuary is located at A. Junagarh, Gujarat B. Diphu, Assam C. Kohima, Nagaland D. Gangtok, Sikkim Answer: Option B 5. For which of the following disciplines is Nobel Prize awarded? A. Physics and Chemistry B. Physiology or Medicine C. Literature, Peace and Economics D. All of the above Answer: Option D 6. Hitler party which came into power in 1933 is known as A. Labour Party B. Nazi Party C. Ku-Klux-Klan D. Democratic Party Answer: Option B 7. FFC stands for A. Foreign Finance Corporation B. Film Finance Corporation C. Federation of Football Council D. None of the above Answer: Option B   8. Fastest shorthand writer was A. Dr. G. D. Bist B. J.R.D. Tata C. J.M. Tagore D. Khudada Khan Answer: Option A 9. Epsom (England) is the place associated with A. Horse racing B. Polo C. Shooting D. Snooker Answer: Option A 10. First human heart transplant operation conducted by Dr. Christiaan Barnard on Louis Washkansky, was conducted in A. 1967 B. 1968 C. 1958 D. 1922 Answer: Option A 11. Galileo was an Italian astronomer who A. developed the telescope B. discovered four satellites of Jupiter C. discovered that the movement of pendulum produces a regular time measurement D. All of the above Answer: Option D 12. Habeas Corpus Act 1679 A. states that no one was to be imprisoned without a writ or warrant stating the charge against him B. provided facilities to a prisoner to obtain either speedy trial or release in bail C. safeguarded the personal liberties of the people against arbitrary imprisonment by the king’s orders D. All of the above Answer: Option D 13. Exposure to sunlight helps a person improve his health because A. the infrared light kills bacteria in the body B. resistance power increases C. the pigment cells in the skin get stimulated and produce a healthy tan D. the ultraviolet rays convert skin oil into Vitamin D Answer: Option D 14. Golf player Vijay Singh belongs to which country? A. USA B. Fiji C. India D. UK Answer: Option B 15. Guarantee to an exporter that the importer of his goods will pay immediately for the goods ordered by him, is known as A. Letter of Credit (L/C) B. laissezfaire C. inflation D. None of the above Answer: Option A 16. First Afghan War took place in A. 1839 B. 1843 C. 1833 D. 1848 Answer: Option A 17. Gulf cooperation council was originally formed by A. Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia and United Arab Emirates B. Second World Nations C. Third World Nations D. Fourth World Nations Answer: Option A 18. First China War was fought between A. China and Britain B. China and France C. China and Egypt D. China and Greek Answer: Option A 19. Dumping is A. selling of goods abroad at a price well below the production cost at the home market price B. the process by which the supply of a manufacture’s product remains low in the domestic market, which batches him better price C. prohibited by regulations of GATT D. All of the above Answer: Option D 20. For the Olympics and World Tournaments, the dimensions of basketball court are A. 26 m x 14 m B. 28 m x 15 m C. 27 m x 16 m D. 28 m x 16 m Answer: Option B  

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CDS/NDA Dfence Important English Question-2022

CDS/NDA Dfence Important English Question-2022 Question: 1 Perceptible to the ear (A) Adorable (B) Laudable (C) Audible (D) Praiseable Ans: C Audible Question: 2 One who is all powerful (A) Unremarkable (B) Mundane (C) Incapable (D) Omnipotent Ans: D Omnipotent Question: 3 A physician who specializes in diseases of skin (A) Cardiologist (B) Dermatologist (C) Obstetrician (D) None of these Ans: B Dermatologist Question: 4 A sleeping room for many persons (A) Dormitory (B) Dwelling (C) Boarding (D) Hostel Ans: A Dormitory Question: 5 A speech delivered without preparation (A) Straightforward (B) Extempore (C) Maiden (D) Verbose Ans: B Extempore Question: 6 A man of lax moral (A) Licentious (B) Vagabond (C) Pirate (D) Ruffian Ans: A Licentious Question: 7 A person who is fond of sensuous enjoyment (A) Witty (B) Epicure (C) Humorous (D) Hedonist Ans: D Hedonist Question: 8 Elimination of a racial group by killing (A) Patricide (B) Homicide (C) Regicide (D) Genocide Ans: B Homicide Question: 9 Incapable of being explained (A) Inexplicable (B) Unexplained (C) Nondescript (D) Untold Ans: A Inexplicable Question: 10 Murder of a brother (A) Fratricide (B) Homicide (C) Patricide (D) Regicide Ans: A Fratricide   Question: 11 Something that becomes outdated (A) Obsolete (B) Useless (C) Ancient (D) Old Ans: A Obsolete Question: 12 Official misconduct (A) Maladministration (B) Maltreatment (C) Malefactor (D) Malfeasance Ans: D Malfeasance Question: 13 Something which is not through or profound (A) Supernatural (B) Superfluous (C) Superficial (D) Superstitious Ans: C Superficial Question: 14 To cause troops etc. to spread out in readiness for battle (A) Disperse (B) Deploy (C) Collocate (D) Align Ans: B Deploy Question: 15 A post without remuneration. (A) Honorary (B) Sinecure (C) Voluntary (D) Involuntary Ans: A Honorary

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Top 15 General English Questions and Answers for CDS- Exams – 1

Top 15 General English Questions and Answers for CDS- Exams – 1 Question: 1 A sleeping room for a number of people (A) Dump (B) Dormitory (C) Fireside (D) Office Ans: B Dormitory Question: 2 A small house with all rooms on one floor (A) Cottage (B) Bungalow (C) Castle (D) Flat Ans: B Bungalow Question: 3 Teetotaler means (A) One who abstains from taking malice (B) One who abstains from taking wine (C) One who abstains from meat (D) One who abstains from theft Ans: B One who abstains from taking wine Question: 4 Policemen riding on motorcycles as guards of VIP (A) Attendants (B) Commandos (C) Servants (D) Outriders Ans: D Outriders Question: 5 One who eats everything (A) Omnipotent (B) Omnivorous (C) Carnivorous (D) Gourmet Ans: B Omnivorous Question: 6 People working in the same department or office (A) Companions (B) Mates (C) Colleagues (D) Fellows Ans: C Colleagues Question: 7 A government that is carried on through officers (A) Dictatorship (B) Class-one (C) Officiousness (D) Bureaucracy Ans: D Bureaucracy Question: 8 A statement that is absolutely clear (A) Unequivocal (B) Ambiguous (C) Confused (D) Clean Ans: A Unequivocal Question: 9 Medicine used to calm or pacify (A) Antidepressant (B) Fusion (C) Hypnotic (D) Tranquillizer Ans: D Tranquillizer Question: 10 A speech without any previous preparation (A) Premeditated (B) Deliberately (C) Extempore (D) Rehearsed Ans: C Extempore Question: 11 A funny imitation of a poem (A) Parody (B) Caricature (C) Dialogue (D) Sonnet Ans: A Parody Question: 12 Cessation of arms before a formal treaty is signed during war (A) Armistice (B) Accord (C) Truce (D) Retreat Ans: A Armistice Question: 13 A person who does not believe in the existence of God (A) Atheist (B) Heretic (C) Fanatic (D) Theist Ans: A Atheist Question: 14 A man who operates on sick people (A) Physiotherapist (B) Physician (C) Operator (D) Surgeon Ans: D Surgeon Question:15 One who has a compulsive desire to steal (A) Kleptomaniac (B) Plagiarist (C) Poacher (D) Pilferer Ans: A Kleptomaniac

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Important Geography Questions for Competitive exams

01. Is Mudumalai Sanctuary famous for elephants and deer is situated in? (a) Assam (b) Gujarat (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Karnataka Ans: (c) 02. Which of the following combinations of riven and cities situated on their banks is wrong? (a) Lucknow – Gomati (b) Ayodhya – Saryu (c) Badrinath – Alaknanda (d) Vijayawada ¬- Narmada Ans: (d) 03. The Bhutia group of languages does not include? (a) Ladakh (b) Tibetan (c) Lepcha (d) Sherpa Ans: (c) 04. Economically the most important forests of India are? (a) Tidal forest (b) Thorn forest (c) Evergreen forest (d) Tropical deciduous forest Ans: (d) 05. A few showers of rain during December and January are beneficial to the rabi crops because they? (a) make the plant strong (b) protect the crops from frost (c) cause fall in temperature (d)provide moisture for the germination of seeds Ans: (b) 06. The correct sequence of the eastward flowing rivers of peninsular India from north to south is? (a) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Pennar, Cauvery and Vaigai (b) Subarnarekha, Mahanadi, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Pennar (c)Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Godavari, Krishna, Cauvery, Pennar (d) Mahanadi, Subarnarekha, Krishna, Godavari, Cauvery, Vaigai and Pennar and Vaigai Ans: (a) 07. The main hydroelectric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because? (a) the need for hydroelectric power is greater in India than in Pakistan (b) India has superior technology to develop hydroelectric power (c) India has a greater labor force to develop hydroelectric power (d) the mountain stages of these rivers lie in India Ans: (d) 08. Which multipurpose project was taken up first of all after independence? (a) Bhakra Nangal Project (b) Damodar Valley Project (c) Kosi Project (d) None of these Ans: (b) 09. Which of the following states is the “Sugar Bowl” of India? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans: (a) 10. Which of the following are not Kharif crops? (a) Bajara and Maize (b) Rice and Jowar (c) Sugarcane and Groundnut (d) Barley and Mustard Ans: (d) 11. The world’s longest masonry dam is? (a) Hirakud (b) Bhakra Nangal (c) Nagarjuna Sagar (d) Aswan Ans: (a) 12. The Koal Project is aimed towards? (a) irrigation (b) drainage and power generation (c) power generation and load control (d) irrigation, flood control, and power generation Ans: (d) 13. The Farakka Project la mainly aimed towards? (a) irrigating more land in West Bengal (b) utilizing a maximum of Ganga water (c) preserving the port of Kolkata (d) production of electricity Ans: (c) 14. Which is India’s largest multipurpose river valley project? (a) Bhakra Nangal (b) Damodar Valley (c) Nagarjunasagar (d) Tungabhadra Ans: (a)  15. Mahi Project will greatly benefit? (a) Maharashtra (b) Punjab (c) Gujarat (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (c) 16. Which of the following projects is administered by more than one State? (a) Nagarjunasagar (b) Kosi (c) Hirakud (d) Tungabhadra Ans: (d) 17. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’? (a) Indo-Gangetic Plain (b) Krishna-Godavari Delta region (c) North-East region (d) Kerala and Tamil Nadu Ans: (b) 18. The States involved In the Dandakaranya Project are? (a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka (b) Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamil Nadu (c) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh (d) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh Ans: (c) 19. Match the following: List-I                                        List-II Beas Project                    1. Krishna Nagarjunasagar Dam    2. Godavari Ukai Project                    3. Bhagirathi Pochampad Project       4 . Tapi Tehri Project                   5. Pong Dam Codes: A             B            C               D             E (a)          4              1              5              2              3 (b)          5              1              4              2              3 (c)           5              1              2              4              3 (d)          1              4              3              2              5 Ans: (b) 20. Which of the following hydroelectric stations is situated in Uttar Pradesh? (a )Mayurakshi (b )Rihand (c) Kangsabati (d )Hirakud Ans: (b)

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20 Important NDA Geography Questions with Answers

01. In which area are Zoroastrians concentrated? (a) Tamil Nadu (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Madhya Pradesh Ans: (c) 02. Which of the following is wrongly matched? (a) Shompens – Andaman and Nicobar (b) Minicoy – Lakshadweep (c) Khasi – Mizoram (d) Garo – Chhatisgarh Ans: (d) 03. In which of the following states would you not find Bhils? (a) Gujarat (b) Karnataka (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (d) 04. Where would you find Oraon, Munda, Santhal, Gonds and Asurs? (a) Chhattishgarh (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Maharashtra (d) Jharkhand Ans: (d) 05. Among the following the most urbanised community in India is? (a) Muslim (b) Hindu (c) Paris (d) Gujarati Ans: (c) 06. Nanda Devi peak forms a part of? (a) Assam Himalayas (b) Kumaon Himalayas (c) Nepal Himalayas (d) Punjab Himalayas Ans: (b) 07. What is the correct sequence of the riven Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths? (a) Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi (b) Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi (c) Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi (d) Narmada – Tapi – Godavari – Mahanadi Ans: (b) 08. Consider the following animals of India? 1. Crocodile 2. Elephant Which of these is/are endangered species? (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans: (c) 09. The first cement factory was built in India in 1904 at? (a) Ranchi (b) Hazaribagh (c) Chennai (d)Hyderabad Ans: (c) 10. The first shore based integrated steel project in India is coming up at? (a) Ernakulam (b) Tuticorin (c) Visakhapatnam (d) Mangalore Ans: (c) 11. The first coal mine in India? (a) Dhanbad (b) Jharia (c) Raniganj (d) Asansol Ans: (c) 12. What is Obra? (a) Copper project in Rajasthan (b) Super thermal power project in Uttar Pradesh (c) Atomic power plant at Kalpakkam (d) Hydroelectric project in Uttar Pradesh Ans: (b) 13. Geothermal energy may serve as an important source of energy in? (a) The Konkan Coast (b) Ladakh District (c) Aravalli Hills (d) Narmada Valley Ans: (b) 14. The State having the maximum number of oil wells on its land portion is? (a) Gujrat (b)Maharashtra (c)Assam (d)Bihar Ans: (a) 15. The advantage of micro-hydel projects is that they? (a) make use of water of the perennial hill streams and irrigation canals (b) prevent flash floods (c) save water (d) involve less cost Ans: (d) 16. Which of the following is a wrong combination of location and hydroelectric projects undertaken by the NHPC? (a) Baira Siul-Himachal Pradesh (b) Salal-Jammu and Kashmir (c) Loktak-Sikkim (d) Devi Ghat-Nepal Ans: (c) 17. Which industry provides jobs to the maximum number of people? (a) Iron textiles (b) Cotton textiles (c) Sugar industry (d) Tea processing Ans: (b) 18. Which of the following is not an international airport? (a) Palam (B) DumDum (c) Meenambakkam (d) Ahmedabad Ans: (d) 19. India has the world’s highest road which connects? (a) Leh and Srinagar (b) Leh and Manali (c) Srinagar and Jammu (d) Sikkim and Darjeeling Ans: (b) 20. Where is Arvi earth station for satellite communication? (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Tamil Nadu (c) Maharashtra (d) Gujarat Ans: (d)

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AFCAT Geography Questions with Answers

01. A rain shadow zone is present in India? (a) along western flanks of the Aravallis (b) along the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats (c) along the western slopes of the Eastern Ghats (d) along the northern flanks of the Vindhyas Ans: (b) 02. The Laccadives are an example of? (a) Islands resulting from submarine earthquakes (b) Volcanic Islands (c) Coral Islands (d) None of the above Ans: (c)  03. _____  river is sometimes referred to as “Dakshin Ganga”.? (a) Panner (b) the Godavari (c) Krishna (d) Cauvery Ans: (b) 04. The part of India receives maximum insolation?. (a) northern (b) eastern (c) western (d) southern Ans: (d) 05. Which of the following regions has almost all prevalent types of natural vegetation in India? (a) The Coastal Plains (b) The Deccan Plateau (c) The Himalayas (d) The Ganga Plain Ans: (c) 06. Does the river Tsangpo flow through before entering India? (a) Myanmar (b) Pakistan (c) Tibet (d) China Ans: (c) 07. The Peninsular rivers which do not join the Arabian Sea are? (a) Narmada and Tapi (b) Narmada and Cauvery (c) Godavari and Krishna (d) Tapi and Cauvery Ans: (c) 08.The highest peak in India is? (a) Mt Everest (b) Kanchenjunga (c) Mt Godwin Austin (K2) (d) Dhaulagiri Ans: (c) 09. The two northeastern hills that block the South West Monsoon winds and cause heavy rains in Assam are? (a) Arakan Yoma and Pegu Yoma (b) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia hills (c) Barail and Patkai hills (d) Khasi and Pegu Yoma Ans: (b)  10. “Himadri” is the term by which the ____ are known.? (a) Western Ghats (b) Siwalik Ranges (c) Middle Himalayas (d) Greater Himalayas Ans: (d)  11. The chief coal-bearing formation in India is known as the? (a) Siwaliks (b) Gondwanas (c) Vindhyans (d) Cuddappahs Ans: (b) 12. Which one of the following racial groups is popularly known as the Aryans? (a) The Proto-Australoids (b) The Mediterraneans (c) The Brachycephaly (d) The Nordics Ans: (d) 13. The Indus Valley Civilization was based on the racial stocks of? (a) Mediterranean (b) Nordics (c) Negritos (d) None of the above Ans: (a) 14. The maximum percentage of the tribal population in India consists of? (a) Santhals (b) Bhils (c) Mundas (d) Nagas Ans: (a) 15. The Bhils and the Kols live? (a) along with the Vindhya ranges (b) in the Nilgiris (c) in the North-East frontiers of India (d) All over India Ans: (a) 16. In the Andaman Islands live the? (a) Todas (b) Onge (c) Gonda (d) Lepcha Ans: (b) 17. Where are the Lepchas mainly to be found staying? (a) Meghalaya (b) Mizoram (c) Sikkim (d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans: (c) 18. The Mopplah are to be found in? (a) Manipur (b) Assam (c) Kerala (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans: (c) 19. The Abhors are? (a) an Adivasi tribe in Bastar (b) a clan of dacoits (c) a tribe of Mongoloid blood (d) extinct now Ans: (c) 20. During which decade did the population record a negative growth rate? (a) 1921-31 (b) 1911-21 (c)1941-51 (d) 1931-41 Ans: (b)

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CDS Previous year Geography Questions

01. The Coromandel Coast of India receives good rains from cyclonic storms in the months of? (a) February and March (b) July and August (c) November and December (d) None of the above Ans: (c)  02. The Sahyadris commence in? (a) Maharashtra (b) Kerala (c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat Ans: (a) 03. An active volcano was reported in India in 1991? (a) Barren Island, Andaman, and the Nicobar Islands (b) Aliabet Island, Gujarat (c) Rameshwaram Island, Tamil Nadu (d) Mumbai Island, Maharashtra Ans: (a) 04. The city located on the river Yamuna is? (a) Varanasi (b) Lucknow (c) Patna (d) Agra Ans: (d) 05. The driest part of India is in? (a) Jaisalmer (Western Rajasthan) (b) Bhatinda (Punjab) (c) Darbhanga (Bihar) (d) Gandhinagar (Gujarat) Ans: (a) 06. Jamshedpur city is located at the confluence site of rivers? (a) Subarnarekha and Korkai (b) Ganges and the Yamuna (c) Kosi and Brahmaputra (d) Damodar and Mayurakshi Ans: (a) 07. The plateau rich in minerals in India is? (a) Malwa Plateau (b) Chhotanagpur Plateau (c) Deccan Plateau (d) Mysuru Plateau Ans: (b) 08. A famous hill station in Uttar Pradesh is? (a) Nainital (b) Darjeeling (c) Dalhousie (d) Kulu Ans: (a) 09 The tropical cyclones of the bay Bengal are usually called? (a) Typhoons (b) Hurricanes (c) Depressions (d) Tornadoes Ans: (b)  10. The ______ river with its tributaries drains the state of Sikkim? (a) Gandak (b) Kosi (c) Tista (d) the Brahmaputra Ans: (c) 11. Yercaud, a hill station of South India, is situated on the? (a) Cardamom Hills (b) Nilgiris (c) Shevaroy Hills (d) Javadi Hills Ans: (c)  12. ____   State has the biggest area in India? (a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh Ans: (c) 13. Which of the following cities is not located on a riverbank? (a) Surat (b) Agra (c) Cuttack (d) Mysore Ans: (d) 14. Marmagao port is linked to the interior using cheap transport on rivers? (a) Zuari and Mandovi (b) Bhima and Kalindi (c) Varada and Malaprabha (d) Gangawali and Savitri Ans: (a) 15. Where is Pygmalion Point also known as Indira Point? (a) Lakshadweep (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands (c) Rameswaram (d) Point Calimere Ans: (b) 16. The finest natural harbor in India is? (a) Chennai (b) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (d) Cochin Ans: (b) 17. Black cotton soil of the Deccan region of India is associated with rocks? (a) Volcanic rocks (b) Plutonic rocks (c) Sedimentary rocks (d) Hypabysal rocks Ans: (a) 18. The ____Lake of India has very high salinity.? (a) Sambhar (Rajasthan) (b) Wular (Jammu & Kashmir) (c) Chilka (Odisha) (d) Pulicut (Tamil Nadu) Ans: (a) 19. Throughout the Ages, the maximum number of streams of people came to India via? (a) The western Himalayan passes (b) Tibet (c) The sea (d) The eastern Himalayan passes Ans: (a) 20. The earliest arrivals in India are believed to be Negritoswhi at which one of the following places are they mainly found now? (a) Punjab (b) Rajasthan (c) Uttar Pradesh (d) the Andaman Islands Ans: (d)

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