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Most Important asked Geography Question for NDA entrance exam

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Important question for the student who is preparing for the Defence examination (NDA, CDS, AFCAT). Geography plays an important role in the general knowledge paper and it becomes very important for the student to score good marks in the NDA exam. We have tried ever best to give you all the important questions as well as previous year’s geography exam questions which will help you in cracking the entrance exam.   01. The hill station Coonor is located in which one of the following states? Karnataka Andhra Pradesh Kerala Tamil Nadu Answer- D 02. Pir Panjal in the Himalayas is a part of? Shiwalik Trans-Himalayas Central Himalayas Lesser Himalayas Answer- D 03. The reservoir GB pant Sagar is located on which river? Betwa Ghaghara Kosi Rihand Answer- D 04. Consider the following tributaries of the river Brahmaputra? Lohit Tista Subansiri Sankosh Arrange the above rivers from west to east? 2-4-3-1 2-3-4-1 4-2-3-1 3-1-2-4 Answer-B 05. Amarkantak plateau in the Maikal hills marks the origin of the river? Gandak Chambal Narmada Ghaggar Answer- C 06. In India, which among the following state has the maximum estimated Uranium Resources? Jharkhand Tamil Nadu Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Answer- D 07. The cities of ‘Hiroshima’ and ‘Nagasaki’ are located on which among the following Islands of the Japanese Archipelago? Honshu and Kyushu respectively B.Honshu and Shikoku respectively Hokkaido and Kyushu respectively Kyushu and Shikoku respectively Answer- A 08. The Temperate Grassland or Shrub-Land Biome is commonly known as? Steppe in Central Asia Prairie in North America Veld in South America Correct option is 1 and 2 1 and 3 2 and 3 1, 2 and 3 Answer- A 09. Which of the following are ‘erosional landforms’? Inselbergs Loess Zeugen Buttes   1 and 2 2 and 3 1, 3 and 4 All of them Answer- C 10. Makran is located in which among the following? the Arabian Sea Indian Ocean near the southern coast of Sri Lanka Bay of Bengal Mediterranean Answer- A 11. Falkland Island is a disputed territory between? Chile and Ecuador West Indies and Spain Uruguay and France Argentina and the UK Answer- D 12. In India, which among the following state has the maximum estimated Uranium Resources? Jharkhand Tamil Nadu Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh Answer- D 13. In which of the following islands of India is an active volcano found? Car Nicobar Island Nancowry Island Barren Island Maya Bunder Island Answer- C 14. In India the rainfall is mainly orographic. Which among the following follows the word in bold? The rainfall occurs when the moist air becomes saturated The rainfall occurs when the masses of air pushed by wind are forced up by large mountains The rainfall occurs on only one side of the mountains D.The rainfall is lesser in Rainshadow areas Answer-  B 15. India’s largest inland saline wetland system is located in which of the following states? Gujarat Rajasthan Orissa Andhra Pradesh Answer- B 16. Consider the following statement regarding laterite soils of India? Laterite soils are generally red in color Laterite soils are rich in nitrogen and potash Laterite soils are well developed in Rajasthan and U.P Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well in this soil.   Which of the statement given above is/are correct? 1 only B.2,3 and 4 1 and 4 only 1,2 and 4 Answer- C 17. Which among the following is a landlocked sea? Timor Sea Arafura Sea Green Land Sea Aral Sea Answer- D 18. Which among the following types of mountains are formed by the lifting up of land between faults or by the sinking of land outside the faults? Block Mountains New Mountains Residual Mountains Fold Mountains Answer- A 19. Which of the following African Country was formerly known as Nyasaland? Tanzania Malawi. Mozambique Botswana   Answer-B 20. What is the current number of Time Zones in Russia? 9 10 11 12 Answer- C  

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Top 20 Question of English language for defence exam

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Directions (1-10): Each of the following sentences has a black space and four words are given below it. Select the word you consider most appropriate for the blank space. Q1. The mounting pressure was so over-whelming that he ultimately _________  to her wish. (a) yielded in (b) gave in (c) cowed in (d) disagreed in Q2. Authority _______  when it is not supported by the moral purity of its user. (a) prevails (b) entails (c) crumbles (d) wait Q3. In a developing country like India some industries will have to be brought within public _______  and control, for other-wise rapid growth of the economy may be impossible. (a) personal (b) hegemony (c) observation (d) ownership Q4. Gandhiji conceived of the idea of channelizing the powerful currents of the united mass movement so as to give the utmost impetus to the national ________  for independence. (a) struggle (b) dispute (c) onslaught (d) march Q5. Because of his _______ habits, he could not save much money. (a) extravagant (b) frugile (c) unsavoury (d) bad Q6. Socrates was _______  of spreading discontent among young men of Athens and of trying to destroy their faith in the old gods. (a) rebuked (b) disparaged (c) accused (d) demolish Q7. The robbers fell ______  amongst themselves over the sharing of the loot. (a) out (b) through (c) inn (d) across Q8. A really sophisticated person would never be _______  enough to think that he is always right. (a) reverent (b) naive (c) artificial (d) humble Q9. Speeding and blocking are traffic offences which lead to ________ accidents. (a) ignoble (b) find (c) great (d) gruesome Q10. Creative people are often ________ with their own uniqueness. (a) obsessed (b) deranged (c) unbalanced (d) disagree     Synonyms multiple choice questions Select the correct answer   Q.11Voracious….. (A) tenacious (B) truthful (C) spacial (D) ravenous   Q12 Abortive….. (A) fruitful (B) cozy (C) unsuccessful (D) consum   Q13 Tenacious….. (A) holding fast (B) collect (C) run (D) intentional   Q.14 Terse (A) brief in speech (B) beyond (C) without honor (D) in strain   Q.15 Tentative…. (A) mock (B) worry (C) experimental (D) prevalent   Q.16 Tenacity….. (A) ingratitude (B) decimal (C) splendor (D) perseverance   Q.17 Replenish…. (A) reinstale (B) refill (C) rigect (D) polish   Q.18 Relish…. (A) savor (B) vindicate (C) avail (D) wish   Q.19 Repercussion…. (A) resistance (B) good (C) acceptance (D) reaction   Q.20 Repellent…. (A) porous (B) stifness (C) electric (D) unattractive   Ans.(b) 2. Ans.(c) 3. Ans.(d)  4. Ans.(a)  5. Ans.(a)  6. Ans.(c)  7. Ans.(a)  8. Ans.(b)  9. Ans.(d)  10. Ans.(a) Ans.(D) 12. Ans.(C) 13. Ans.(A)  14. Ans.(A)  15. Ans.(C)  16. Ans.(D)  17. Ans.(B)  18. Ans.(C)  19. Ans.(D)  20. Ans.(D)    

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top 20 question on indian polity

Top 20 Questions and Answers on Indian Polity and Governance

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We are shareing you the top 20  Questions and Answers on Indian Polity and Governance.   1.Which of the following states is not included in the sixth schedule of Indian Constitution? [A] Meghalaya [B] Tripura [C] Mizoram [D] Manipur Answer D 2.Which among the following language is NOT there in the 8th Schedule of Constitution of India? [A] Dogri [B] Rajasthani [C] Sindhi [D] Manipuri Answer B 3.In which year, Daman & Diu were separated from Goa? [A] 1968 [B] 1973 [C] 1985 [D] 1987 Answer C 4.Which among the following acts, incorporated 11th Fundamental duty in Indian Constitution? [A] 42nd Amendment Act [B] 44th Amendment Act [C] 86th Amendment Act [D] 100th Amendment Act Answer C 5.The Right to Free & Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 that was enacted in 2010 provides a justiciable legal framework for providing free and compulsory education to children in the age group of _? [A] 0-6 years [B] 0-14 years [C] 6-14 years [D] 6-18 years Answer C 6.Which of the following is incorrect about Indian Independence Act? [A] It provided for the partition of India [B] It abolished the office of Viceroy [C] Freedom to princely states to join the Dominion of India or the Dominion of Pakistan or to remain [D] British monarch retained his right to veto bills for certain period Answer D 7.The demand for Constituent Assembly was accepted in which proposal of the British government? [A] Gandhi-Irwin Pact [B] August Offer [C] Cripps Mission [D] Cabinet Mission Answer B 8.The concept of Judicial Review in India is adopted from the Constitution of which country? [A] USA [B] Germany [C] USSR [D] Australia Answer A 9.Which Article of Indian Constitution contains the definition of Money bills? [A] Article 110 [B] Article 111 [C] Article 112 [D] Article 123 Answer A 10.Preamble of the Indian Constitution based on which of the following previous documents / Laws? [A] Nehru Report [B] Objectives Resolution [C] Government of India Act, 1935 [D] Indian Independence Act, 1947 Answer B 11.The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed? [A] 5% [B] 10% [C] 15% [D] 20% Answer C 12.Who can advise the president to dissolve the Lok Sabha on the ground that the House does not represent the views of the electorate faithfully? [A] The President [B] The Prime Minister [C] Council of Ministers [D] Rajya Sabha Answer C 13.Which Constitutional Amendment increased the retirement age of high court judges from 60 to 62 years? [A] 15th [B] 16th [C] 17th [D] 18th Answer A 14.Which constitutional amendment substituted “Odia” for “Oriya”? [A] 91st [B] 93rd [C] 96th [D] 99th Answer C 15.Which part of the Constitution deals with the organisation, composition, duration,  officers, procedures, privileges, powers and so on of the Parliament? [A] Part IV [B] Part V [C] Part VI [D] Part VII Answer B 16.How many parliaments are there in the Inter Parliamentary Union at present? [A] 152 [B] 153 [C] 154 [D] 155 Answer B 17.Who becomes empowered to legislate with respect to goods and services tax or matters in the State List, while a proclamation of national emergency is in operation? [A] The President [B] The Prime Minister [C] The Cabinet [D] The Parliament Answer D 18.In which year was the Sarkaria Commission appointed? [A] 1983 [B] 1984 [C] 1984 [D] 1986 Answer A 19.Which of the following statements are correct with respect to President’s Rule? State council of ministers headed by the chief minister is not dismissed President either suspends or dissolves the state legislative assembly Select the correct statement from the codes given below: [A] Only 1 [B] Only 2 [C] Both 1 & 2 [D] Neither 1 & 2 Answer B 20.What are the reasons given for the practice of judicial activism? [A] Failure of Legislature and Executive to discharge their function [B] Citizens look up to the judiciary for the protection of their rights [C] Legislative Vacuum [D] All of the above Answer D

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Top 20 Question of English language for Defence Exam

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AUTONOMY (A) Submissiveness B) Dependence C) Subordination D) Slavery ANSWER= (B) Dependence OVERT A) Deep B) Shallow C) Secret D) Unwritten ANSWER= (C) Secret ACCORD A) Solution B) Act C) Dissent D) Concord ANSWER= (C) Dissent ALIVE A) Passive B) Dead C) Asleep D) Drowry ANSWER= (B) Dead PAUCITY A) Surplus B) Scarcity C) Presence D) Richness ANSWER= (A) Surplus OPAQUE A) Misty B) Covered C) Clear D) Transparent ANSWER= (D) Transparent RUTHLESS A) Mindful B) Compassionate C) Majestic D) Merciful ANSWER= (D) Merciful DEARTH A) Extravagance B) Scarcity C) Abundance D) Sufficiency ANSWER= (C) abundance ACQUITED A) Entrusted B) Convicted C) Burdened D) Freed ANSWER= (B) Convicted ONEROUS A) Straight forward B) Easy C) Complex D) Plain ANSWER= (B) Easy Directions : In each of the following sentences a word has been given in the bold letters. Out of given alternatives, choose the one which is closed to the opposite in meaning of the Italicized word. COMIC A) Painful B) Fearful C) Tragic D) Emotional ANSWER= (C) Tragic TERRIBLE A) Horrible B) Awesome C) Delightful D) Hideous ANSWER= (C) Delightful ADDITION A) Multiplication B) Subtraction C) Enumeration D) Division ANSWER= (B) Subtraction EVACUATE A) Admit B) Emerge C) Abandon D) Invade ANSWER= (A) Admit LANGUID A) Smart B) Energetic C) Fast D) Ferocious ANSWER= (B) Energetic STRINGENT A) Magnanimous B) Lenient C) Vehement D) General ANSWER= (B) Lenient GRATUITY A) Annuity B) Stipend C) Discount D) Wages ANSWER= (D) Wages NADIR A) Progress B) Liberty C) Zenith D) Modernity ANSWER= (C) Zenith ALIENATE A) Gather B) Identify C) Assemble D) Unite ANSWER= (B) Identify SPURIOUS A) False B) Genuine C) Simple D) Systematic ANSWER= (B) Genuine    

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Top Geography Questions for NDA 2023

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Geography Questions for NDA Which one of the following layers of the atmosphere is responsible for the deflection of radio waves? (a) Troposphere (b) Stratosphere (c) Mesosphere (d) Ionosphere Which one of the following stars is nearest to the Earth? (a) Polaris (b) Alpha Centauri (c) Sun (d) Sirius Which one of the following conditions is most relevant for the presence of life on Mars? (a) Atmospheric composition (b) Thermal conditions (c) Occurrence of ice caps and frozen water (d) Occurrence of ozone The correct sequence of different layers of the atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards is (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere (b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere, Mesosphere (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere (d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere, Ionosphere Which one of the following weather conditions is indicated by a sudden fall in barometer reading? (a) Stormy (b) Calm weather (c) Cold and dry weather (d) Hot and sunny weather Who amongst the following was the first to state that the earth was spherical ? (a) Aristotle (b) Copernicus (c) Ptolemy (d) Strabo Volcanic eruptions do not occur in (a) Baltic Sea (b) Black Sea (c) Caribbean Sea (d) Caspian Sea Which one of the following is not a lagoon? (a) Ashtamudi lake (b) Chilka lake (c) Periyar lake (d) Pulicat lake In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus? (a) Earth and Jupiter (b) Jupiter and Saturn (c) Saturn and Earth (d) Saturn and Neptune In the structure of planet Earth, below the mantle, the core is mainly made up of which one of the following? (a) Aluminium (b) Chromium (c) Iron (d) Silicon The earth’s rotation does not cause (a) deflection of ocean currents (b) phases of the moon (c) tides (d) difference in time between two meridians The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from (a) west to east (b) east and west of the prime meridian (c) poles to equator (d) equator to poles On the day the sun is nearest to the earth, the earth is said to be in (a) aphelion (b) perihelion (c) apogee (d) perigee In aeroplanes, the atmospheric pressure is measured with (a) Aneroid barometer (b) Barometer (c) Barogram (d) Altimeter All of the following types of climates occur in the southern hemisphere expect (a) hot desert (b) savannah (c) equatorial (d) tundra The density of air is normally _at higher attitude. (a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) varies from place to place Farrel’s Law is concerned with the (a) direction of winds (b) velocity of winds (c) intensity of waves (d) None of these The layer of the atmosphere which contains dust particles and water vapour is called (a) Stratosphere (b) Troposphere (c) Ionosphere (d) Mesophere Which of the following cities is nearest to the equator? (a) Colombo (b) Jakarta (c) Manila (d) Singapore The waterfall ‘Victoria’ is associated with the river (a) Amazon (b) Missouri (c) St. Lawrence (d) Zambezi

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Top 20 Geography MCQs – 2022

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Q1.What is the currency of Kazakhstan?A) RupeeB) RupiahC) TengeD) Dinar Q2.What is the currency of KyrgyzstanA) TengeB) SomC) DinarD) Ringgit Q3.What is the currency of Nepal?A) RupeeB) Nepalese RupeeC) RupiahD) Taka Q4.DRACHMA symbol of currency was used in which European country?A) GreeceB) ItalyC) GermanyD) France Q5.What is the currency of Thailand?A) DinarB) DollarC) BahtD) Rupee Q6.What is the currency of Germany?A) PoundB) EuroC) DollarD) Riyan Q7.What is the currency of United States?A) DollarB) YenC) PoundD) DinarShow Solu Q8.What is the currency of Brazil?A) DollarB) YenC) PoundD) Real Q9.What is the currency of Sweden?A) DollarB) Swedish KronaC) YenD) Pound Q10.What is the currency of Spain?A) DollarB) EuroC) YenD) Pound Q11.What is the currency of Greece?A) DollarB) EuroC) PoundD) Yen Q12.Ringgit is the currency of:A) BrunieB) BahrainC) CyprusD) Jordan Q13.Study of the Universe is called:A) SociologyB) CosmologyC) UniversologyD) Petology Q14.When did the Big Bang explosion occur?A) 10 Billion years agoB) 15 Billion years agoC) 20 Billion years agoD) 25 Billion years ago Q15.Which of the following planets is called Dwarf Planet?A) MercuryB) PlutoC) MarsD) Uranus Q16.What runs between the North Sea and the Atlantic Ocean ?A) Labrador Sea‎B) James Bay‎C) The English ChannelD) Greenland Sea Q17.Congo River in Africa is how many miles long ?A) 2720B) 3720C) 2270D) 3270 Q18.What is divergent plate boundary?A) A barrier beach that is connected to land at one end with the other end extending into a body of water such as a bay, lagoon or oceanB) An indefinite zone extending seaward from the shoreline to just beyond the breaker zoneC) The landward flow of water up onto the beach that occurs when a wave breaksD) Mid ocean ridge demarcates the boundary between two tectonic plates Q19.The Southern Ocean – surrounding Antarctica – does not border which landmass ?A) The EurasianB) AmericasC) AustraliaD) Antarctica Q20.Bay of Biscay which is an extension of the Atlantic Ocean on which cost of Europe is it located ?A) Southern Coast of EuropeB) Nother Coast of EuropeC) Western Coast of EuropeD) Eastern Coast of Europe

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Top 20 G.K. NDA Questions-2022

Leave a Comment / GENERAL KNOWLEDGE /

01. Which is the deepest trench of the world? a) Philippine trench b) Tonga Trench c) Kuril- Kamchatka Trench d) Mariana Trench 02. In which place in Asia receive highest rainfall in the world? a) Mawsynram, Meghalaya, India b) Emei Shan, Sichuan Province, China c) Cherrapunji, Meghalaya, India d) Mt. Waialeale, Kauai, Hawaii, Oceania 03. Which is the longest river in Asia? a) Brahmaputra River b) Ganga River c) Yangtze River d) Nile River 04. Which of the following the tributaries of the river Ganga originates in the plains? a) Yamuna b) Kosi c) Son d) Gomti 05. Which of the following figures in cubic kilometres correctly shows the total annual precipitation in India? a) 2,000 b) 4,000 c) 3,000 d) 5,000 06. As per an official estimate, India receives this much per cent of rainfall during the South West monsoon season (June to September)? a) 55% b) 65% c) 75% d) 85% 07. The highest proportion of the total ground water used in the country is in which one of the following sectors? a) Irrigation b) Domestic use c) Industries d) None of the above 08. Reliance’s Jamnagar Oil Refinery, considered as the largest refinery in the world, is located in a) Andhra Pradesh b) Maharashtra c) Karnataka d) Gujarat 09. At which one of the following places, India’s first atomic power station started? a) Kalpakkam b) Rana Pratap Sagar c) Narora d) Tarapur 10. The Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited is located in……? a) Tamil Nadu b) Telangana c) Jharkhand d) Madhya Pradesh 11. What is the correct descending order on the basis of the number of sex ratio in the states? a) Kerala <Chhattisgarh <Mizoram <Andhra Pradesh b) Arunachal Pradesh <Kerala <Manipur <Meghalaya c) Meghalaya <Kerala << Chhattisgarh <Tamil Nadu d) Kerala <Tamil Nadu <Andhra Pradesh <Chhattisgarh 12. Who won the ICC world cup 2019? a) India b) England c) New Zealand d) Australia 13. The Hornbill festival is celebrated in a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Nagaland c) Odisha d) West Bengal 14. World Archery suspended the Archery Association of which among the following countries? a) India b) China c) Pakistan d) Bangladesh 15. Name the first woman to head a paramilitary force. a) Divya Ajith b) Archana Ramasundaram c) Punita Arora d) Ashwini Pawar 16. Who was elected as the first woman President of Indian National Science Academy (INSA)? a) Chandrima Shaha b) Aditi Pant c) Shubha Tole d) Yamuna Krishnan 17. Rouf is the folk dance of which Indian State? a) Gujarat b) Jammu and Kashmir c) Maharashtra d) Tamil Nadu 18. The new union territory of Ladakh has how many districts? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) One 19. How many agreements were signed between India and Uzbekistan for military cooperation? a) Four b) Three c) Five d) Seven 20. Who was recently appointed as the Indian Ambassador to UAE? a) Pavan Kapoor b) Navdeep Singh Suri c) Aman Singh d) Pradeep Bhaskar  

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Top History questions for NDA

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History Questions for NDA Which was the first city to be discovered in the Indus valley civilization?a. Mohenjo-Darob. Roparc. Harappad. Sutkagen Which was the second excavated city to be discovered in the Indus valley civilization?a. Mohenjo-Darob. Roparc. Harappad. Sutkagen Who excavated the Harappan site of the Indus valley civilization?a. D. R. Sahnib. R. D. Banerjeec. N. G. Majumdard. Amlanand Ghose Who excavated the Mohenjo-Daro site of the Indus valley civilization?a. D. R. Sahnib. R. D. Banerjeec. N. G. Majumdard. Amlanand Ghose Which city was the Naval Port city of Indus valley civilization?a. Lothalb. Amric. Kalibangand. Harappa “The Great Bath” was discovered in which site of Indus valley civilization?a. Mohenjo-Darob. Roparc. Harappad. Sutkagen The famous “Pashupati seal” was discovered in which site of Indus valley civilization?a. Mohenjo-Darob. Roparc. Harappad. Sutkagen Which is the oldest Veda Indic text?a. Samvedab. Yajurvedac. Rigvedad. Atharvaveda Who is the Chinese to Visit India?a. Fa-heinb. Tu-hsangc. Tseringd. Xenin Where was the first Jain Council was held?a. Vallabhib. Patliputrac. Ayodhyad. Dwarka Who is the founder of the Magadha Empire?a. Bimbisarab. Ajatshatruc. Aniruddhad. Panas Who is the founder of the Shishunaga dynasty?a. Licchavib. Nagadasakac. Mahanandind. Shishunaga Who is the founder of the Nanda dynasty?a. Pandukab. Pandugatic. Kaivartad. Mahapadma Nanda The first Buddhist Council was held at?a. Rajagrhab. Patliputrac. Ayodhyad. Dwarka Where was the second Jain Council was held?a. Vallabhib. Patliputrac. Ayodhyad. Dwarka Which king of the Magadha Empire shifted the capital from Girivraj to Patliputra?a. Bimbisarab. Ajatshatruc. Aniruddhad. Panas Where was the second Buddhist Council was held?a. Rajagrhab. Patliputrac. Ayodhyad. Vaishali Who is the first Tirthankara of Jainism?a. Mahavirab. Rishabhanathac. Parshvanathad. Vasupujya Who is the last Tirthankara of Jainism?a. Mahavirab. Rishabhanathac. Parshvanathad. Vasupujya Who is the founder of the Mauryan Empire?a. Chandragupta Mauryab. Samudragupta Mauryac. Bindusarad. Ashoka

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How to Prepare for Airforce Agniveer Vayu Exam 2022

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How to Prepare for Airforce Agniveer Vayu Exam 2022 Facebook Twitter Youtube The Indian Air Force has began out on line registrations for the Agniveer Vayu Exam 1/2022 below the newly added Agnipath Scheme. As in line with the authentic notification releed with the aid of using the IAF, on line examination for Agniveer Vayu consumption will begin from twenty fourth July 2022 onwards. If you’re seeking out instruction hints for Agniveer Vayu examination 2022, then this text is for you.  Here, we can proportion vital hints that will help you crack the Agniveer Vayu Exam and recognise your dream of becoming a member of the Indian Air Force. To assist applicants carry out nicely withinside the examination, we’re right here presenting the vital hints for Air Force Agniveer vayu examination 2022.  Candidates need to observe those recommendations to beautify their examination instruction due to the fact there are only a few weeks left for the web examination. Read directly to realize more. Since there’s a confined time for the instruction of the Airforce Agniveer Vayu examination 2022, applicants need to cognizance on running smartly.  In the strategic instruction, the primary cognizance ought to be on information the whole syllabus, then formulating the techniques as in line with the examination sample observed with the aid of using regular exercise of mock exams and pattern papers. Below are the important thing hints to excel withinside the Air Force Agniveer Vayu Exam 2022. Understanding the Complete Airforce Agniveer Vayu Syllabus  In the first actual step, applicants must discover the Air Force Agniveer Vayu Syllabus. A thorough expertise of the entire syllabus will assist them recognize which subjects they must cognizance extra on and which subjects they must revise extra. This technique will assist applicants prioritize the subjects which want extra attention. This manner, they are able to collect their syllabus efficaciously and commit their time in a extra green manner to decorate examination preparation.   Key Highlights of Agniveer Vayu Syllabus 2022 Major topics blanketed withinside the Air Force Agniveer Yayu examination encompass English, Reasoning and General Awareness (RAGA), Physics, and Mathematics. The topics are selected primarily based totally at the applicants’ alternatives for a sure organization a number of the Science Subjects (Group X), Other Than Science Subjects (Group Y), or each Science Subjects and Other Than Science Subjects (Group X-Y).  After training the Agniveer Vayu version papers 2022, applicants can decorate their middle concert events of those topics. Below is whole facts approximately the syllabus for Science Subjects and Other Than Science Subjects. Candidates making use of for the Science Subjects (Group X) want to strive handiest English, Physics and Mathematics papers.  Candidates making use of for the Other Than Science Subjects (Group Y) want to strive handiest English and Reasoning and General Awareness (RAGA). Candidates making use of for each Science Subjects & Other Than Science Subjects (Group X-Y) want to strive English, Physics, Mathematics and Reasoning & General Awareness (RAGA).   Formulating Strategy as per Exam Pattern Once you’ve got got understood the whole syllabus, you have to recognition on exploring the examination sample to test which phase covers the most marks. A holistic evaluation of the examination sample will assist you put your priorities for revision work, exercise work, and conceptual clarity. Once you’ve got got assessed the examination sample, recognition greater on practising the Agniveer Vayu mock exams and pattern papers to assess your overall performance earlier than the examination.  Practicing Mock Tests and Sample Papers Attempting Agniveer version papers will permit you to formulate a approach primarily based totally for your comprehension of essential concepts. You can be capable of compare your stage of coaching and the problem stage of examination after working towards the Agniveer Vayu pattern papers. Additionally, working towards Agniveer pattern papers will assist you create a radical examination approach and provide you with a sensible feel of the real examination.

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Top General Ability Questions for NDA

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General Ability Questions for NDA Why did Gandhi Ji go to Champaran ? (a) To launch a Satyagraha movement (b) To launch a non-cooperation movement (c) To enquire into the grievances of the indigo cultivators (d) To fight against the zamindars. 2. One feels heavier in a lift when the lift (A) is going down steadily (B) just begins to go up (C) is moving up steadily (D) descends freely 3. The principle of cleaning by soap is – (a) surface tension (b) floatation (c) viscosity (d) elasticity 4.Variance is always independent of the change of (a) origin but not scale (b) scale only (c) both origin and scale (d) None of the above 5.  A married couple adopted a male child. A few years later, twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is (a) O positive (b) A positive (c) B positive (d) cannot be determined 6. A man pointing to a photograph says, “The lady in the photograph is my nephew’s maternal grandmother.” How is the lady in the photograph related to the man’s sister who has no other sister? A. Mother B. Cousin C. Mother–in–law D. Sister–in–law 7. A woman introduces a man as the son of the brother of her mother. How is the man related to the woman? A. Son B. Nephew C. Grandson D. Uncle 8. Prasanna said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother.” Who is Prasanna to the girl? A.Husband B. Father C. Father–in–law D. Grandfather 9. If Arun says, “Vimal’ mother is the only daughter of my mother”, how is Arum related to Ravi? A. Father B. Brother C. Grandfather D. None of these 10. Pointing to a man in a photograph. Asha said. “His mothers only daughter is my mother”. How is Asha related to that man? A. Wife B. Sister C. Niece D. Nephew 11. A woman going with a boy is asked by another woman about the relationship between them. The women replied, “My maternal uncle and the uncle of his maternal uncle is the same.” How is the lady related with that boy? A. Mother and Son B. Aunt and Nephew C. Grandmother and Grandson D. None of these 12. A man said to a lady, “Your mother’s husband’s sister is my aunt.” How is the lady related to the man? A. Grand daughter B. Mother C. Daughter D. Sister 13. If X is the brother of the son of Y’s son, how is X related to Y? A. Son B. Cousin C. Grandson D. Brother 14.  Introducing a man, a woman said, “His wife is the only daughter of my father.”How is that man related to the woman? A. Husband B. Brother C. Father–in–law D. Maternal uncle 15. Showing the man receiving the prize, Saroj said, “He is the brother of my uncle’s daughter.” Who is the man to Saroj? A. Cousin B. Brother–in–law C. Nephew D. Uncle 16.  Rita told Mani,“The girl I met yesterday at the beach was the youngest daughter of the brother–in–law of my friend’s mother.” How is the girl related to Rita’s friend? A. Daughter B. Niece C. Friend D. Cousin 17. Pointing to a man in a photograph, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather.” How is the woman related to the man in the photograph? A. Aunt B. Daughter C. Grandmother D. Sister 18. Pointing to a gentleman, Deepak said, “His only brother is the father of my daughter’s father.” How is the gentleman related to Deepak? A. Brother–in–law B. Uncle C. Father D. Grandfather 19. Pointing to a photograph, Vipul said, “She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son.” How is Vipul related to the girl in the photograph? A. Brother B. Grandson C. Cousin D. Father 20. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Pramod, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle.” How is the speaker related to Pramod’s father? A. Wife B. Sister–in–law C. Daughter D. Either (a) or (b)

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