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TOP 20 GREAT HISTORY (MCQ) FOR (NDA)-(IMA) EXAM PRTEPARATION 2023

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, GK QUIZ, History Quiz /

Q&A PROVIDED BY (DOON DEFENCE DREAMERS) BEST NDA COACHING IN DEHRADUN (IMA)(NDA)-Practice solving different types of questions to improve your problem-solving skills and expand your knowledge base. casino minimum deposit TOP 20 HISTORY (MCQ) FOR NDA IMA EXAM PRTEPARATION 2023 – INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY For those looking for some fun, claim free spins no deposit not on Gamstop can help relieve stress. These promotions allow players to enjoy online casino games without an initial investment, and students to unwind after a busy academic process. The absence of restrictions on Gamstop allows for a wider selection of games, improving the overall gaming experience and offering the perfect break from intense exam preparation. Doon Defense Dreamers, on the other hand, stands out as a leading NDA training institute that offers comprehensive preparation for a variety of defense-related exams. Known for its thorough approach, the institute helps aspirants build a strong foundation in academic knowledge, physical fitness, and overall personal development. The combination of disciplined training for a noble career in defense and the incredible recreation provided by no deposit rotations creates a balanced lifestyle for students.   Who was the leader of the Bolshevik Revolution in Russia? Vladimir Lenin Joseph Stalin Leon Trotsky Mikhail Gorbachev Answer: Vladimir Lenin The Magna Carta was signed in which year? 1215 1492 1776 1914 Answer: 1215 Who was the first President of the United States? George Washington Thomas Jefferson Abraham Lincoln John F. Kennedy Answer: George Washington The French Revolution began in which year? 1789 1812 1848 1917 Answer: 1789 Who is credited with discovering the New World? Christopher Columbus Vasco da Gama Ferdinand Magellan James Cook Answer: Christopher Columbus The Battle of Waterloo took place during which war? Napoleonic Wars American Civil War World War I World War II Answer: Napoleonic Wars The Industrial Revolution originated in which country? England France Germany United States Answer: England The Berlin Wall fell in which year? 1989 1969 1975 1991 Answer: 1989 Who was the first female Prime Minister of India? Indira Gandhi Margaret Thatcher Golda Meir Benazir Bhutto Answer: Indira Gandhi The Renaissance period began in which country? Italy Spain Greece France Answer: Italy The Treaty of Versailles was signed at the end of which war? World War I World War II Korean War Vietnam War Answer: World War I Who was the founder of the Maurya Empire in ancient India? Chandragupta Maurya Ashoka the Great Samudragupta Harsha Vardhana Answer: Chandragupta Maurya The Declaration of Independence was adopted in which year? 1776 1789 1812 1865 Answer: 1776 The Cold War was primarily between which two superpowers? United States and Soviet Union United States and China United States and Germany United States and Japan Answer: United States and Soviet Union The Emancipation Proclamation was issued by which U.S. President? Abraham Lincoln George Washington Franklin D. Roosevelt John F. Kennedy Answer: Abraham Lincoln Who wrote the book “The Communist Manifesto”? Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels Adam Smith John Locke Voltaire Answer: Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels The Battle of Gettysburg was a significant event in which war? American Civil War Revolutionary War War of 1812 Spanish-American War Answer: American Civil War The Taj Mahal is located in which city? Agra, India Cairo, Egypt Rome, Italy Paris, France Answer: Agra, India Who was the leader of the Soviet Union during World War II? Joseph Stalin Vladimir Lenin Mikhail Gorbachev Nikita Khrushchev Answer: Joseph Stalin The Battle of Stalingrad was a turning point in which war? World War II Korean War Vietnam War Gulf War Answer: World War II These challenging history multiple-choice questions can help you in your preparation for the NDA 2023 exam. Practice answering them to improve your historical knowledge and test-taking skills. I’m glad you found the answers helpful. If you have any more questions or need further assistance, feel free to ask at https://doondefencedreamers.com/. Good luck with your preparations for NDA 2023! The NDA (National Defence Academy) exam incorporates multiple-choice questions (MCQs) in the history section, offering several benefits. Here are the key advantages of using multiple-choice questions in the history segment of the NDA exam: Comprehensive Assessment: Multiple-choice questions enable the evaluation of a wide range of historical knowledge and concepts. They cover various periods, events, and personalities, allowing for a comprehensive assessment of candidates’ understanding of history. Objective Evaluation: MCQs provide an objective method of evaluation, ensuring fairness and minimizing subjective biases in grading. The answers are predetermined, eliminating any ambiguity in the assessment process. Time Efficiency: The NDA exam has a time constraint, and MCQs facilitate efficient use of the allotted time. Candidates can quickly read and respond to the questions, enabling the examination authorities to evaluate a large number of candidates within the given time frame. Critical Thinking Skills: History MCQs often require candidates to analyse information, apply critical thinking, and make reasoned judgments. By engaging in this process, candidates develop their analytical and logical reasoning skills, which are valuable in various military and leadership roles. Recall and Retention: MCQs help candidates consolidate their historical knowledge and enhance their ability to recall important facts, events, and concepts. Regular practice with MCQs reinforces memory retention, facilitating a deeper understanding of historical topics

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Top 20 Geography Questions for NDA Examination 2023

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Below is the List of the Top 20 Geography Questions for NDA Examination 2023 What is the capital of India? a) Mumbai b) New Delhi c) Kolkata d) Chennai Which is the highest mountain peak in India? a) Mount Everest b) K2 c) Kanchenjunga d) Nanda Devi Name India’s longest river. a) Brahmaputra b) Yamuna c) Gangas d) Godavari Which is the largest state in India by area? a) Rajasthan b) Madhya Pradesh c) Uttar Pradesh d) Maharashtra What is the southernmost point of the Indian mainland called? a) Kanyakumari b) Port Blair c) Rameswaram d) Thiruvananthapuram Which is the largest saltwater lake in India? a) Dal Lake b) Chilika Lake c) Vembanad Lake d) Sambhar Lake What is the official language of the state of Maharashtra? a) Marathi b) Hindi c) Gujarati d) Kannada Which city is known as the “Silicon Valley of India”? a) Hyderabad b) Bengaluru c) Chennai d) Pune Name India’s largest river island. a) Majuli Island b) Digha Island c) Diu Island d) Havelock Island Which Indian state has the highest literacy rate? a) Kerala b) Tamil Nadu c) Maharashtra d) Goa Which state in India has the largest population? a) Uttar Pradesh b) Maharashtra c) Bihar d) West Bengal What is the westernmost Indian state? a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra c) Rajasthan d) Goa Which city is known as the “City of Joy” in India? a) Kolkata b) Mumbai c) Delhi d) Chennai Name the Indian state known as the “Land of the Rising Sun.” a) Arunachal Pradesh b) Meghalaya c) Mizoram d) Manipur What is the capital of Jammu and Kashmir after it became a union territory? a) Srinagar b) Jammu c) Leh d) Ladakh Which tiger reserve in India is the largest? a) Jim Corbett National Park b) Bandipur National Park c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve d) Periyar Tiger Reserve Name the national park famous for one-horned rhinoceros in India. a) Kanha National Park b) Ranthambore National Park c) Jim Corbett National Park d) Kaziranga National Park   Which Indian city is known as the “City of Lakes”? a) Udaipur b) Jaipur c) Jodhpur d) Bhopal   What is the official language of the state of Tamil Nadu? a) Telugu b) Tamil c) Kannada d) Malayalam   Name the famous historical monument in India that is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site. a) Qutub Minar b) Hawa Mahal c) Taj Mahal d) Red Fort  

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Common Maths Formulas Used in NDA Exam

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The National Defence Academy (NDA) exam includes a wide range of topics, including mathematics. Here are some common math formulas that are often used in the NDA exam: **1. Trigonometric Formulas:** – Pythagorean identities: \( \sin^2(x) + \cos^2(x) = 1 \) – Sum and difference formulas: – \( \sin(A \pm B) = \sin(A)\cos(B) \pm \cos(A)\sin(B) \) – \( \cos(A \pm B) = \cos(A)\cos(B) \mp \sin(A)\sin(B) \) **2. Algebraic Formulas:** – Quadratic formula: \( x = \frac{-b \pm \sqrt{b^2 – 4ac}}{2a} \) – Binomial theorem: \( (a + b)^n = \sum_{k=0}^{n} \binom{n}{k} a^{n-k} b^k \) – Factorization formulas: Difference of squares, perfect square trinomials, etc. **3. Geometry Formulas:** – Area of a triangle: \( \text{Area} = \frac{1}{2} \times \text{base} \times \text{height} \) – Perimeter and area of different polygons: square, rectangle, circle, etc. – Volume and surface area of basic 3D shapes: cube, cylinder, sphere, etc. **4. Arithmetic and Number System Formulas:** – LCM (Least Common Multiple) and GCD (Greatest Common Divisor) relationships. – Divisibility rules for numbers. – Arithmetic operations involving fractions, decimals, and percentages. **5. Mensuration Formulas:** – Area and perimeter of rectangles, squares, circles, triangles, etc. – Volume and surface area of cubes, spheres, cylinders, cones, etc. **6. Algebraic Identities:** – \( (a + b)^2 = a^2 + 2ab + b^2 \) – \( (a – b)^2 = a^2 – 2ab + b^2 \) – \( a^2 – b^2 = (a + b)(a – b) \) **7. Exponents and Logarithms:** – Laws of exponents: multiplication, division, power of a power, etc. – Logarithm properties: \( \log(ab) = \log a + \log b \), \( \log(a^b) = b \log a \) Remember that understanding the concepts behind these formulas is just as important as memorizing the formulas themselves. Practice using these formulas in different types of problems to enhance your problem-solving skills for the NDA exam. Always refer to the NDA syllabus and previous year’s question papers to get a better idea of the specific topics and types of questions that are commonly asked.

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TOP 20 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTION FOR NDA EXAM PREPARATION 2023

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, current affair, Examniation, General, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, GK QUIZ, History Quiz, Lоgiсаl Reаsоning Questiоns /

Q&A PROVIDED BY (DOON DEFENCE DREAMERS) BEST NDA COACHING IN DEHRADUN (IMA)(NDA)-challenging multiple-choice questions that can help you prepare for the NDA 2023 exam.  Practice solving different types of questions to improve your problem-solving skills and expand your knowledge base.   For individuals who wish to bet online without restrictions, not Gamstop betting sites offer an outlet. These sites operate independently of the UK Gamstop self-exclusion scheme, allowing players who have opted for self-exclusion to continue betting. They often offer a variety of betting options, including sports betting, casino games, and live dealer experiences. However, while these platforms have fewer restrictions, it is important for users to gamble responsibly and be aware of the potential risks associated with circumventing self-exclusion measures. On the other hand, for those gamblers who aspire to serve in the defense forces, Doon Defense Dreamers is a prominent NDA training institute known for its comprehensive training programs. With a strong focus on both academic excellence and physical fitness, Doon Defense Dreamers provides candidates with the necessary skills and knowledge to succeed in a career as a defender. Who is known for formulating the theory of relativity? Isaac Newton Albert Einstein Galileo Galilei Nikola Tesla Answer: Albert Einstein What is the chemical formula for sulfuric acid? H2SO3 H2SO4 HCl NaOH Answer: H2SO4 Which city is located in two continents? Istanbul Rome Athens Cairo Answer: Istanbul Who wrote the famous novel “1984”? George Orwell F. Scott Fitzgerald Ernest Hemingway Jane Austen Answer: George Orwell Which planet is known as the “Morning Star” or “Evening Star”? Mars Venus Jupiter Mercury Answer: Venus What is the largest internal organ in the human body? Liver Lungs Heart Brain Answer: Liver Who painted the famous artwork “The Persistence of Memory”? Leonardo da Vinci Vincent van Gogh Salvador Dalí Pablo Picasso Answer: Salvador Dalí Which country is the largest producer of oil in the world? United States Saudi Arabia Russia China Answer: United States What is the SI unit of electric current? Watt Ohm Ampere Volt Answer: Ampere Who discovered the law of gravity? Isaac Newton Albert Einstein Galileo Galilei Nikola Tesla Answer: Isaac Newton What is the chemical symbol for  potassium?                                  K Pt Pb Ko Answer: K m? Which composer is known for the “Moonlight Sonata”? Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart Ludwig van Beethoven Johann Sebastian Bach Franz Schubert Answer: Ludwig van Beethoven What is the smallest country in the world? Russia Vatican City Monaco Maldives Answer: Vatican City Who wrote the play “Hamlet”? William Shakespeare Oscar Wilde Tennessee Williams Henrik Ibsen Answer: William Shakespeare What is the chemical symbol for gold? Ag Au Fe Cu Answer: Au Which country is known as the “Land of Fire and Ice”? Iceland Norway Australia Canada Answer: Iceland Who is the author of the book “Pride and Prejudice”? Jane Austen Charles Dickens Mark Twain Emily Brontë Answer: Jane Austen Which planet is known for its prominent rings? Saturn Uranus Neptune Jupiter Answer: Saturn Who invented the telephone? Alexander Graham Bell Thomas Edison Nikola Tesla Benjamin Franklin Answer: Alexander Graham Bell Which language has the most native speakers in the world? Mandarin Chinese English Spanish Hindi Answer: Mandarin Chinese I’m glad you found the answers helpful. If you have any more questions or need further assistance, feel free to ask at https://doondefencedreamers.com/. Good luck with your preparations for NDA 2023! Multiple-choice questions (MCQs) offer several benefits specifically in the context of the NDA (National Defence Academy) exam. Here are some of the key benefits of using multiple-choice questions in the NDA exam: Efficient Assessment: The NDA exam is highly competitive, and it attracts a large number of candidates. MCQs allow for efficient assessment of a large pool of candidates within a limited time frame. Standardized Evaluation: MCQs provide a standardized evaluation process, ensuring fairness and objectivity in assessing candidates’ knowledge and aptitude. The answer choices are predetermined, reducing the potential for bias in grading. Comprehensive Coverage: The NDA exam covers a wide range of subjects and topics, including mathematics, general ability, and English. MCQs allow for the assessment of a diverse range of knowledge and skills required for the exam. Quick Decision Making: In the NDA exam, candidates are required to make quick and accurate decisions, especially in the general ability section. MCQs simulate real-life scenarios where candidates need to analyse information and select the most appropriate response within a limited time. Effective Test  Preparation MCQs are an integral part of NDA test preparation materials. Practicing MCQs helps candidates become familiar with the exam format, develop time management skills, and improve their problem-solving abilities.

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Top 20 Question Reasoning and Military Questions for AFCAT

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, Lоgiсаl Reаsоning Questiоns /

1. Sandhya scored more than Ankit, Yash score as much as Rajesh. Lokita scored less than Manish. Ankit scored more than Yash. Manish scored less than Rajesh. Who got the highest score? A. Manish B. Yash C. Sandhya D. Ankit 2. “She is the daughter of my wife’s mother’s only daughter,” Binod stated, pointing to a photograph. How is the girl in the photo related to Binod? A. Cousin B. Uncle C. Father D. Wife 3. In the following question, A means ‘+’, B means ‘−’, C means ‘X’ and D means ‘÷’ then 18 C 14 A 6 B 16 D 4 = ? A. 73 B. 254 C. 298 D. 1218 4. In the following question + means –, – means +, x means ÷, ÷ means x, then 16 + 14 ÷ 2 – 110 x 11 ÷ 2 = ? A. 8 B. 16 C. 32 D. 64 5. If ARIHANT is written as BSJIBOU in one code language, how would PENGUIN be expressed in that code language? A. QOFVHJO B. QFOVHJO C. QFOHVJO D. QOFHVOJ 6. If BROWSER is written as RESWORB in one code language, how would TEACHER be written in that code language? A. RECHCAT B. REHCAET C. REHCTEA D. AHRCTEA 7. Select the related word pair from the list of options. EXPLORE : DISCOVER A. Read: Skim B. Research: Learn C. Write: Print D. Think: Relate 8. Monk : Nun :: Bachelor : ? A. Spinster B. Woman C. Lady D. Man 9. DCHG : LKQP :: FEJI : ? A. MLSR B. NMRQ C. ONTS D. QPUT 10. K is 40 m South-West of P. If M is 40 m South-East of P, then M is in which direction of K? A. East B. West C. South D. North-East 11. In an analog clock, how many distinct points do the hour and minute hands meet? A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12 12. In the following question, there is an X-shaped diagram with a dot(s) in it. This diagram is followed by four others, labelled I, II, III, and IV. Only one of the figures allows for the positioning of the dot(s) to satisfy the same constraints as in the original diagram. Find the appropriate replacement. A. I B. II C. III D. IV 13. Which of the following diagrams best represents the relationship between hockey, football, and cricket? A. (a) B. (b) C. (c) D. (d) 14. A set of figures with special qualities are supplied in the following question. Assuming that the characters follow a similar pattern, locate the missing character. A. 28 B. 30 C. 35 D. 27 15. What is the eighth term in the series 2, 6, 18, 54,……? A. 4370 B. 4374 C. 7443 D. 7434 16. Choose the set in which the names of United Nations Secretary-Generals are organised in chronological order. A. Trygve Lie, Dag Hammarskjoeld, U Thant, Kurt Waldheim B. U Thant, Kurt Waldheim, Trygve Lie, Dag Hammarskjoeld C. Dag Hammarskjoeld, Trygve Lie, Kurt Waldheim U Thant D. Kurt Waldheim, U Thant, Trygve Lie, Dag Hammarskjoeld 17. Fresh grapes have 90% water content, while dried grapes have 20%. How many kilograms of dried grapes may be obtained from 20 kilograms of fresh grapes? A. 2.4 kg B. 2.5 kg C. 2 kg D. 5 kg 18. Four numbers have been presented in the following question, three of which are similar in some way while the fourth is different. Decide on the number that stands out from the others. A. 37 B. 17 C. 7 D. 15 19. There are four groups of letters offered, three of which are similar in one manner and one of which is different. Pick the odd one out. A. ABBC B. PQQR C. HIIJ D. WYYZ 20. A multiplex movie theatre offers a 25% discount on ticket prices. As a result, there is a 10% rise in cinema hall attendance. Find the difference in the movie theater’s revenue. A. 22.2 % increase B. 17.5 % decrease C. 15 % decrease D. 12.5 % increase

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Top 20 Question Asked in AFCAT-EKT Exams

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, GK QUIZ, Lоgiсаl Reаsоning Questiоns /

Given that P(A) = 1/4, P(B) = 1/3 and P(AUB) = 1/2. P(A/B) value is (a) 1/4 (b) 1/3 (c) 1/6 (d) 1/7 A transducer is a tool that (a) converts one form of electric energy into other (b) is similar to transformer (c) converts one form of energy into other (d) helps in measuring electricity As per the Charles’ law, volume of a given mass of a perfect gas varies__________ as its absolute temperature, when the absolute pressure remains constant (a) directly (b) indirectly (c) no relation (d) none of the above In a venturi flume, the flow takes place at (a) atmospheric pressure (b) gauge pressure (c) absolute pressure (d) none of these The angle between two vectors a = i+2j-k and b = 2i+j+k is (a) 30 deg (b) 45 deg (c) 60 deg (d) 90 deg If the centre of a circle is (-6,8) and it passes through the origin, then equation to its tangent at the origin is (a) 2y=x (b) 4y=3x (c) 3y=4x (d) 3x+4y=0 How is a J-K Flip Flop made to toggle (a) J=0, K=0 (b) J=1, K=0 (c) J=0, K=1 (d) J=1, K=1 In PCM system (a) a large bandwidth is required (b) the biggest disadvantage is its incompatibility with TDM (c) companding is used to overcome quantising noise (d) none of the above Stalling of the aerofoil occurs (a) When the angle of attack is beyond critical angle of attack. (b) When the angle of attack is less than critical angle of attack. (c) Both A and B (d) None of the above Which is a permanent database in the general model of compiler? (a) literal Table (b) Identifier Table (c) terminal Table (d) source code Slip rings for induction motor are made of (a) copper (b) aluminium (c) carbon (d) phosphor bronze Newton is unit of force. It is the unit in (a) MKS system (b) CGS system (c) FPS system (d) None of these A Farad is defined as (a) stat coulomb /volt (b) coulomb/volt (c) coulomb x volt (d) stat coulomb x volt Tesla is a measure of (a) magnetic flux density (b) electric flux density (c) magnetic potential (d) electric potential The signal is extended from 96 KHz to 100 KHz, so the minimum sampling frequency required is (a) 8 KHz (b) 200 KHz (c) 4 KHz (d) 100 KHz Principle of hysteresis is not used in (a) electrical water geyser (b) electrical motor (c) multi-vibrators (d) Schmitt trigger Ideally Voltage Standing Wave Ratio (VSWR) should be (a) as large as possible (b) as small as possible (c) as close to unity as possible (d) infinity _________is an active filter (a) RC filter (b) notch filter (d) band pass filter (c) Butterworth filter When the separation between two charges is made four times, the force between them (a) increases four times (b) decreases four times (c) increases sixteen times (d) decreases sixteen times Principle of hysteresis is not used in (a) electrical water geyser (b) electrical motor (c) multi-vibrators (d) Schmitt trigger

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MNS Exam 2023: CBT, PAT, PI & Exam Details | Everything You Need to Know

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, Notification /

The MNS Exam 2023 is a highly anticipated examination for aspiring candidates in the medical field. This article will provide a comprehensive overview of the MNS Exam, covering the Computer Based Test (CBT), Psychological Assessment Test (PAT), Personal Interview (PI), and important exam details. Whether you are a prospective candidate or simply curious about the MNS Exam, this article will serve as a valuable resource to understand the exam structure and preparation process. The MNS Exam, also known as the Military Nursing Service Exam, is conducted by the Indian Army for admission to the B.Sc. Nursing courses are offered at various military nursing colleges across the country. This prestigious exam aims to select eligible candidates who possess the required skills, knowledge, and aptitude to pursue a career in nursing within the military healthcare system. What is the MNS Exam? The MNS Exam serves as the gateway for aspiring candidates to join the Indian Army as a nurse. It is a competitive examination that tests the candidates’ academic knowledge, problem-solving abilities, physical fitness, and overall suitability for the role of a military nurse. Let’s delve deeper into the various aspects of the MNS Exam. Purpose and Significance of the MNS Exam 2023 The MNS Exam holds significant importance as it opens up opportunities for aspiring nurses to serve in the Indian Army. Military nurses play a crucial role in providing healthcare services to armed forces personnel, veterans, and their families. The exam ensures that only the most qualified and deserving candidates are selected to serve in this honorable position. Eligibility Criteria for MNS Exam 2023 Before diving into the details of the exam, let’s first understand the eligibility criteria for the MNS Exam 2023. To be eligible for the exam, candidates must meet the following requirements: Nationality: The candidate must be a citizen of India. Date of Birth: Between Aug 02, 1981 and Aug 03, 1995 (Both days inclusive). Educational Qualifications: Passed/appearing 10+2 or equivalent examination with not less than 50% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany & Zoology), and English. Candidates that are in their final year of study during the current academic session. Marital status: Single/Married/Divorcee or otherwise lawfully Separated/Widow. Physical Standard: The applicant must stand at least 152 cm tall. The minimum height requirement for candidates from Garhwal, Kumaon, Gorkhas, or the Northeastern region is 148 cm. MNS Exam 2023: Criteria for Selection The selection criteria for the MNS Exam 2023 encompass a comprehensive evaluation of candidates to ensure that only the most deserving individuals are chosen for the esteemed position of nursing officers. The criteria include: Computer Based Test (CBT) The Computer Based Test (CBT) is the initial stage of the MNS Exam. It evaluates the candidates’ academic knowledge and problem-solving skills. The CBT is conducted online, and candidates must be familiar with the exam pattern and syllabus to perform well. This exam will be worth a total of 150 marks, and the candidate will have 90 min to complete it. It will be divided into three parts: General English, General Intelligence, and Science (PCB). Each segment will include 50 questions, with each question worth 1 mark. The MNS Exam 2023 will not have a negative grading structure. Test of General Intelligence & General English (ToGIGE) ToGlGE will be a computer-based test (CBT) with 40 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) worth 2 marks each, for a total of 80 marks. Every erroneous response will result in a penalty of 0.5 marks. It will take 30 minutes to respond to these 40 questions. Psychological Assessment Test (PAT) The Psychological Assessment Test, or PAT, is a stage in the selection process for officers in the Military Nursing Service (MNS). The PAT is a qualifying exam for the MNS selection process that consists solely of objective questions; the scores will not be utilized to determine the final merit list. Psychological assessment testing, which is meant to measure traits, competencies, behavior, and so on, is a popular methodology utilized in the MNS exam. Personal Interview (PI) Candidates will be asked to a personal interview if they successfully complete the computer-based test. 100 points will be awarded for the interview. Medical Examination After the stage of the personal interview, the applicant will have a medical examination. In order to confirm that the candidate satisfies all medical fitness requirements, an X-ray of the chest and an ultrasound of the belly and pelvis will be done. After the medical examination, the candidates will be pronounced FIT or UNFIT for the Military Nursing Services and will be notified of their medical status as soon as possible. The President of the Selection Medical Board (SMB) will also advise them about the procedure for requesting an Appeal/Review Medical Board. Syllabus for MNS Exam 2023 The following is a general overview of the subjects covered by the MNS Exam syllabus: Subject Syllabus General English Shuffling of sentence parts Synonyms / Antonyms Idioms and phrases Spot the error Cloze test Passage Improvement Detecting Mis-spelt words Shuffling of Sentences in a passage One word substitutions Comprehension passage Fill in the blanks Spellings Jumbling of words One word substitutions General Intelligence Non-Verbal Series Analytical Functions etc. Judgment Relationship Concepts Observation Arithmetical Computation Number Series Problem Solving Figure Classification also Analysis Similarities and Differences Space Visualization Visual Memory Decision Making Physics Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Laws of Motion & Work, Energy, and Power Properties of Matter Optics Current Electricity Dual Nature of Radiation and Atomic Physics Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current Nuclear Physics Semiconductor Devices and their Applications Electrostatics Chemistry Isomerism in Organic Compounds Atomic Structure Electro chemistry Carboxylic Acids and their derivatives Coordination Chemistry and Solid State Chemistry Alcohols and Ethers p, d, and f – Block Elements Carbonyl Compounds Organic Nitrogen Compounds and Biomolecules Thermodynamics, Chemical Equilibrium, and Chemical Kinetics Biology Taxonomy Biodiversity, ecology, and environment Plant physiology Human physiology Reproduction Human health and diseases Biochemistry Cell and Molecular Biology Biotechnology and its applications Genetics and evolution   Pattern for MNS Exam 2023 Understanding the exam pattern is essential for candidates

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CDS-2 2023 Notification Out: Exam Dates, Application Process, and Eligibility Criteria

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, Notification /

The Combined Defence Services Examination (CDS) is a national-level competitive examination conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) of India. It is held twice a year to select candidates for admission into the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers’ Training Academy. This article provides an overview of the CDS-2 2023 notification, including important dates, eligibility criteria, application process, exam pattern, syllabus, preparation tips, and more. CDS-2 2023 Notification CDS-2 2023 is the second examination of the year and offers an opportunity for individuals to join the prestigious Indian Armed Forces. The CDS-2 2023 notification presents a wonderful opportunity for individuals aspiring to serve in the Indian Armed Forces. It is important for candidates to stay updated with the official notification, eligibility criteria, and exam pattern. With proper preparation and dedication, candidates can increase their chances of success in the CDS-2 2023 examination. Candidates who meet the eligibility criteria can apply for the examination and compete for various positions in the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force. UPSC CDS-2 2023 Exam Eligibility To be eligible for the CDS-2 2023 examination, candidates must fulfill certain criteria. The eligibility requirements include: Nationality The candidate must be an Indian citizen or a subject of Nepal/Bhutan. Age Limit For IMA & Indian Naval Academy: Candidates born not earlier than July 2, 2000 and not later than July 1, 2005. For Air Force Academy: 20 to 24 years (Candidates born not earlier than July 2, 2000 and not later than July 1, 2004). Age relaxation is allowed under the criteria. Educational Qualification Degree from a recognized university or equivalent is required for the IMA and Officers’ Training Academy. Degree in Engineering from a recognized university/institution required for Indian Naval Academy. Degree from a recognized university (with Physics and Mathematics at the 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering is required for admission to the Air Force Academy. UPSC CDS-2 Exam 2023 – Important Dates Date that Online Applications will Begin 17-05-2023 Last Date to Apply Online 6-06-2023 Date of Online Application Correction 07 to 13-06-2023 till 06:00 PM Examination date 3-09-2023 Date for Admit Card Download Before Exam CDS-2 2023 Application Process The application process for CDS-2 2023 will be conducted online. Candidates need to visit the official UPSC website: www.upsc.gov.in and fill out the application form with accurate details. They will also need to upload scanned copies of their photograph and signature. After submitting the application, candidates must pay the required application fee as specified in the notification. Application Fee for CDS-2 Exam 2023 Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank. CDS-2 2023 Exam Pattern The CDS-2 2023 examination consists of a written exam and an interview conducted by the Services Selection Board (SSB). The written exam includes multiple-choice questions covering topics such as English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics. The SSB interview assesses the candidate’s personality, intelligence, and suitability for a career in the armed forces. (a) Admission to the Indian Naval Academy, Indian Military Academy, and the Indian Air Force Academy Subject Maximum Marks Duration English 100 2 Hours General Knowledge 100 2 Hours Elementary Maths 100 2 Hours (b) For Admission to the Officers’ Training Academy Subject Maximum Marks Duration English 100 2 Hours General Knowledge 100 2 Hours The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and the interviews will be equal for each course, i.e. 300, 300, 300, and 200 for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, and Officers’ Training Academy, respectively. Syllabus for the CDS-2 Exam 2023 The syllabus for the CDS-2 2023 examination is vast and covers various subjects. The written exam syllabus includes English, General Knowledge, and Elementary Mathematics. Candidates should refer to the official notification for the detailed syllabus and prepare accordingly. CDS-2 2023 Vacancy Details Name of the Course No. of Vacancies Indian Military Academy (Dehradun) 100 Indian Naval Academy (Ezhimala) 32 Air Force Academy (Hyderabad) 32 Officers’ Training Academy Chennai (Madras) – 120th SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing in October, 2024 169 Officers Training Academy Chennai (Madras) – The 34th SSC (Women) (NT) (UPSC) Course will begin in October, 2024 16 CDS-2 2023 Exam Preparation Tips To excel in the CDS-2 2023 examination, candidates should follow some effective preparation tips. These include: Understanding the exam pattern and syllabus thoroughly. Creating a study schedule and allocating time for each subject. Practicing past years’ question papers and mock tests. Reading newspapers and staying up to date on current events. Joining coaching institutes or online platforms for guidance and preparation resources. CDS-2 2023 Admit Card Candidates who successfully submit their application for CDS-2 2023 will be issued an admit card by the UPSC. The admit card will contain important details such as the candidate’s roll number, exam center, and instructions for the examination day. Candidates must download and print the admit card, as it is a mandatory document for appearing in the examination. CDS-2 2023 Result and Selection Process After the completion of the CDS-2 2023 examination and SSB interview, the UPSC will declare the results on its official website. The selection process involves a merit-based selection, and candidates who qualify both the written exam and interview will be eligible for further training at their respective academies. FAQs for the CDS-2 Exam 2023 Q1: Is there any relaxation in age limit for reserved category candidates? Ans: No, the age limit criteria are applicable to all candidates irrespective of their category. Q2: Are there any specific physical fitness requirements for the CDS-2 2023 exam? Ans: Yes, candidates are required to meet certain physical fitness standards as specified by the respective academies. Q3: Can final-year students apply for the CDS-2 2023 exam? Ans: Yes, final-year students can apply for the examination,

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TOP 20 general studies (MCQ) for NDA exam preparation

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, General, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, GK QUIZ /

    Q&A PROVIDED BY (DOON DEFENCE DREAMERS) BEST NDA COACHING IN DEHRADUN (IMA)(NDA)-challenging multiple-choice questions that can help you prepare for the NDA 2023 exam.  Practice solving different types of questions to improve your problem-solving skills and expand your knowledge base. TOP 20 general studies (MCQ) for NDA exam preparation   In the heart of Manitoba, where sports are deeply embedded, the excitement around online sports betting sites is steadily gaining momentum. Manitobans are turning to digital platforms to place bets on their favorite teams, from die-hard hockey fans to those who are passionate about football. Amidst this fervor, institutions like Doon Defense Dreamers are acting as beacons of focused training for aspirants who want to make their way in the defense sector. While sports fans may spend their evenings analyzing game stats and odds on Manitoba sports betting sites, ambitious individuals looking to join the armed forces dedicate their time to rigorous training at Doon Defense Dreamers, honing their skills for the challenges ahead. While some may be betting on the outcome of the next big game, others at Doon Defense Dreamers are immersed in strategic planning and physical training, preparing for the rigors of the defense sector.   Who is the current President of France? Emmanuel Macron François Hollande Nicolas Sarkozy Jacques Chirac Answer: Emmanuel Macron Which country is the largest producer of coffee in the world? Brazil Colombia Vietnam Ethiopia Answer: Brazil The Great Barrier Reef is located in which country? Australia Philippines Indonesia Malaysia Answer: Australia Which of the following is the largest planet in our solar system? Jupiter Saturn Earth Mars Answer: Jupiter The currency of South Africa is called: Rand Peso Euro Rupee Answer: Rand Which city is known as the “Eternal City”? Rome Athens Paris Cairo Answer: Rome The Angkor Wat temple complex is located in which country? Cambodia Thailand Vietnam Myanmar Answer: Cambodia Which of the following is the longest river in Africa? Nile Congo Zambezi Niger Answer: Nile Who is the author of the novel “To Kill a Mockingbird”? Harper Lee Mark Twain F. Scott Fitzgerald J.D. Salinger Answer: Harper Lee The Acropolis is located in which city?                            Athens Rome Istanbul Cairo Answer: Athens Mount Everest is located in which mountain range? Himalayas Alps Andes Rockies Answer: Himalayas Which country is known as the “Land of the Rising Sun”? Japan China South Korea Vietnam Answer: Japan The “Mona Lisa” is a famous painting created by: Leonardo da Vinci Pablo Picasso Vincent van Gogh Michelangelo Answer: Leonardo da Vinci Who is the author of the play “Romeo and Juliet”? William Shakespeare Oscar Wilde George Bernard Shaw Tennessee Williams Answer: William Shakespeare Which of the following countries does not have a coastline? Switzerland Australia Brazil Canada Answer: Switzerland The “Statue of Liberty” is located in which city? New York City Paris London Rio de Janeiro Answer: New York City Which country is the largest producer of oil in the world? Saudi Arabia Russia United States Iran Answer: United States Who painted the famous artwork “The Starry Night”? Vincent van Gogh Salvador Dali Pablo Picasso Leonardo da Vinci Answer: Vincent van Gogh The Taj Mahal is located in which city? Agra Delhi Jaipur Mumbai Answer: Agra Which of the following is not one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World? Great Wall of China Colossus of Rhodes Hanging Gardens of Babylon Lighthouse of Alexandria Answer: Great Wall of China   I’m glad you found the answers helpful. If you have any more questions or need further assistance, feel free to ask at https://doondefencedreamers.com/. Good luck with your preparations for NDA 2023! Studying General Studies (Multiple-Choice Questions) for the NDA (National Defence Academy) exam offers several benefits that contribute to your overall preparation and success. Here are the key advantages of studying General Studies MCQs: Broad Knowledge Base: General Studies covers a wide range of subjects, including current affairs, history, geography, science, and more. By studying MCQs in General Studies, you develop a broad knowledge base that spans various disciplines. This helps you understand the world around you and equips you with diverse information that is crucial for a career in defence. Comprehensive Coverage: MCQs in General Studies are designed to cover essential topics and concepts relevant to the NDA exam. By studying these MCQs, you ensure comprehensive coverage of the syllabus, leaving no gaps in your preparation. This helps you build a strong foundation in various subjects and enhances your overall understanding. Effective Learning and Retention: MCQs are an effective learning tool as they require active recall and engagement. By practicing General Studies MCQs, you engage in active learning, which aids in better comprehension and retention of information. The process of answering multiple-choice questions reinforces your understanding of key concepts and facts. Test-Taking Skills: The NDA exam includes multiple-choice questions, and studying General Studies MCQs helps you develop and improve your test-taking skills. You become familiar with the format, learn to manage time efficiently, and develop strategies to approach different types of questions. These skills are valuable for performing well in the exam and maximizing your score. Critical Thinking and Problem-Solving: General Studies MCQs often require you to analyse information, evaluate options, and make reasoned judgments. By practicing these MCQs, you sharpen your critical thinking and problem-solving abilities. You learn to think logically, apply knowledge to real-world scenarios, and make informed decisions—an essential skill set for defence professionals.  

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Best NDA Maths Question Paper 2023 – Top 20 Questions for NDA Preparation

Leave a Comment / DEFENCE, Examniation, GENERAL KNOWLEDGE, MATH /

IMA NDA Maths Paper If you are preparing for Defence Exam, Here are some NDA Maths multiple-choice questions (MCQs) to help you in your preparation you can practice best Top 20 Question NDA Maths Objective type questions which can help to improve in your preparation. Answer Key also attached in the end. Question 1 – If the Endless GP has an initial term x and a total of 5, then which of the following is correct? (a) x <- 10 (b) – 10 <x <0 (c) 0 <x <10 (d) x> 10 Question 2 –  A square matrix A is called an orthogonal if (a) A = A2 (b) A ’= A-1 (c) A = A-1 (d) A = A ’ Question 3 – Let x be the integer number between 2999 and 8001 with at least two equal numbers. Then x is equal to (a) 2480 (b) 2481 (c) 2482 (d) 2483 Question 4 – Series total 3 – 1 + (1/3) – (1/9) + …… (a) 20/9 (b) 9/20 (c) 9/4 (d) 4/9 Question 5 – There are 17 cricket players, 5 of whom can throw a ball. In how many ways can a team of 11 players be selected to include 3 throwers? (a) C (17, 11) (b) C (12, 8) (c) C (17, 5) x C (5, 3) (d) C (5, 3) x C (12, 8) Question 6 – What is the value of log9 27 + log8 32? (a) 7/2 (b) 19/6 (c) 4 (d) 7 Question 7 – If A and B are two square matrices that do not change in the same order, then what is (AB) -1 equal to? (a) B-1 A-1 (b) A-1 B-1 (c) B-1 A (d) A-1 B Question 8 – The sum of the binary numbers (11011) 2, (10110110) 2 and (10011x0y) 2 is the binary number (101101101) 2. What are the values ​​of x and y? (a) x = 1, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 0 (c) x = 0, y = 1 (d) x = 0, y = 0 Question 9 – If (0.2) x = 2 and log10 2 = 0.3010, then how much is the nearest x ten? (a) – 10.0 (b) – 0.5 (c) – 0.4 (d) – 0.2 Question 10 – The sum of 5-digit numbers can be made up of digits from 0 to 9 (a) 45360 (b) 30240 (c) 27216 (d) 15120 Question 11 – What is it equal to (2 tan θ / 1 + tan2 θ)? (a) at 2θ (b) 2θ (c) sin 2θ (d) cosec 2θ Question 12 – If the second (θ – α), second θ and second (θ + α) are in AP, where cos α ≠ 1 is, then what is the value of sin2θ + cos α? (a) 0 (b) 1 (c) – 1 (d) ½ Question 13 – If A + B + C = 180 °, then sin 2A – sin 2B – sin 2C equals you? (a) – 4 sin A sin B sin C (b) – 4 cos A sin B cos C (c) – 4 cos A cos B sin C (d) – 4 sin A cos B cos C Question 14 – The balloon is over one end of the bridge. The angle of depression on the other side of the bridge from the balloon is 48 °. If the height of the balloon above the bridge is 122m, what is the length of the bridge? (a) 122 sin 48 ° m (b) 122 tan 42 ° m (c) 122 cos 48 ° m (d) 122 tan 48 ° m Question 15 – A is the angle in the fourth quadrant. Satisfy trigonometric number 3 (3 – tan2 A – cot A) 2 = 1. Which of the following is the value of A? (a) 300 ° (b) 315 ° (c) 330 ° (d) 345 ° Question 16 – If x, x – y and x + y are triangular angles (not equal triangle) so that tan (x – y), tan x and tan (x + y) are in the GP, what does x mean equals? (a) π / 4 (b) π / 3 (c) π / 6 (d) π / 2 Question 17 – If a 6-meter-long flagpole is placed on top of a tower it casts a shadow of 2√3 m on the ground, then how much angle does the sun make to the ground? (a) 60 ° (b) 45 ° (c) 30 ° (d) 15 ° Question 18 – What is the equivalent of tan-1 (1/4) + tan-1 (3/5)? (a) 0 (b) π / 4 (c) π / 3 (d) π / 2 Question 19 – If sin (x + y) / sin (x – y) = a + b / a – b, then what is tan x / tan y equal to? (a) a / b (b) b / a (c) a + b / a – b (d) a – b / a + b Question 20 – If sin α + sin β = 0 = cos α + cos β, when 0 <β <α <2π, then which of the following is correct? (a) α = π – β (b) α = π + β (c) α = 2π – β (d) 2α = π + 2β Here is the Top 20 Question NDA Maths Paper Answer Key: – Question No. Answer Question No. Answer Question 1 C Question 11 C Question 2 B Question 12 A Question 3 B Question 13 D Question 4 C Question 14 B Question 5 D Question 15 A Question 6 B Question 16 A Question 7 A Question 17 A Question 8 B Question 18 B Question 9 C Question 19 A Question 10 C Question 20 B NDA Maths Paper, NDA Maths Paper, NDA Maths Paper, NDA Maths Paper, NDA Maths Paper TOP 20 NDA MATHS QUESTION AND ANSWER 

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